Why is it that tha base of a logarithm can't be 1? I can't see anything wrong with this.

Thank you

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- July 6th 2011, 03:27 PMNemesislogarithms
Why is it that tha base of a logarithm can't be 1? I can't see anything wrong with this.

Thank you - July 6th 2011, 03:33 PMe^(i*pi)Re: logarithms
The basic definition of a logarithm is

If we say that then it follows that . Yet the laws of exponents say that if we raise 1 to any real number we get an answer of 1. - July 6th 2011, 03:42 PMAlso sprach ZarathustraRe: logarithms
- July 7th 2011, 12:17 PMHallsofIvyRe: logarithms
Another way of thinking about it is that " " is the inverse function to . But if a=1, , as e^(i*pi) pointed out. Because that function, unlike for any other (positive) a, is not "one-to-one", it does not have an inverse.