1. ## transformation of graph

hi,
i need to put these onto a graph:
Y=X^2
Y=(X+3)^2
Y=4(X-1)^2

i can do the first one and the second but im unsure on the third one, this is what i have done so far and where i think the 3rd one will go!

is this correct for number 3? if not where am i going wrong?

thanks!

2. Originally Posted by andyboy179
hi,
i need to put these onto a graph:
Y=X^2
Y=(X+3)^2
Y=4(X-1)^2

i can do the first one and the second but im unsure on the third one, this is what i have done so far and where i think the 3rd one will go!

is this correct for number 3? if not where am i going wrong?

thanks!
Number 3 is wrong. There is no vertical shift. The 4 gives vertical DILATION.

3. The third one is wrong (the other two are fine). Your graph doesn't have a y intercept which implies x=0 is not valid when it is.

Compared to the first graph you move it 1 to the right and 'squeeze it by 4'.

It would be easiest to find where the graph crosses the axis and draw a curve to that effect.

It crosses the x-axis when 4(x-1)^2 = 0 and it crosses the y-axis when x=0:

4. would this means it goes here:

?

5. Originally Posted by andyboy179
is this correct for number 3? if not where am i going wrong?

It is no correct. For example $(1,0)$ must be a point of the graph .

Fernando Revilla

Edited: Sorry, I didnīt see the previous posts.

6. No - there is no vertical shift

(-1,0), (0,-1) and (1,0) are on your graph so you can plot those points and draw the curve

edit: this post is wrong

7. Originally Posted by e^(i*pi)
No - there is no vertical shift

(-1,0), (0,-1) and (1,0) are on your graph so you can plot those points and draw the curve
but that would just look like this:

8. I did make a mistake in that post. It passes through (0,1) and (4,0) instead

edit: see attached graph in spoiler - the green one is the graph of number 3
Spoiler:

9. so would it look like this:

10. Originally Posted by andyboy179
so would it look like this:

Have you seen e^(i*pi)'s attachment?

Fernando Revilla

11. Originally Posted by e^(i*pi)
I did make a mistake in that post. It passes through (0,1) and (4,0) instead

edit: see attached graph in spoiler - the green one is the graph of number 3
Spoiler:

FernandoRevilla, i hadn't seen the attachment when i first looked, thanks!