Thread: can anybody prove the g'(x) = g (x)? please

Let f and g be two functions whose domains are the set of all real numbers. Furthermore, suppose that

g(x) = x f(x) + 1

g (a+b) = g(a) g(b) for all a and b

lim f(x) = 1
x-> 0

please help me on this
thank you

Originally Posted by rcs

Let f and g be two functions whose domains are the set of all real numbers. Furthermore, suppose that
g(x) = x f(x) + 1
g (a+b) = g(a) g(b) for all a and b
lim f(x) = 1
x-> 0

See if by using the given you can get:

thanks plato...

i still cant get the your hint. am i bit confused.

Originally Posted by rcs

i still cant get the your hint. am i bit confused.

From the given:


.

Now put it together and let

If you still don't see, the sit down with a live tutor.