Hi,

I'm reviewing some basic calculus concepts, and I have the following questions that will probably be very easy for you guys to answer, although I'm stuck since a long time on them.

Given the usual limit that is used in the definition of "e": lim (n->infinity) (1+1/n), how do we prove that the limit exists and it is finite?

Can we use the binomial theorem expansion for a finite n, and prove that the coefficients tend to be 1/k! for n that goes to infinity, so we get the Taylor expansion? I'd like to see a rigorous proof of this derivation of e's expression as a power series, we shouldn't forget to prove that the coefficients of the binomial expansion don't diverge (in fact, i guess they should converge) as n goes to infinity...

Or without expanding it, can we prove the following statements:

let a(n)=(1+1/n)^n

1-prove that a(n) is strictly increasing

2-prove that a(n) is limited above by a finite positive number L (for instance, we could try to prove it for L=3 or L=4): a(n)<L for all n.

Final questions:

A-if we manage to prove the two statements above, then did we successfully prove that the limit exists?

B-is there a better way than this to prove that the limit exists?

Thanks! And please excuse me for the length of the post...