I dont have a clue how people come up to the second part of the equation after the equal sign... please help me to understand!
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Just multiply top and bottom by .
but why to do that? could you explain
I'm not exactly sure myself. If I wanted to prove the identity, I would do this: It depends on how you define the hyperbolic tangent function, I guess. Make sense?
Originally Posted by problady I dont have a clue how people come up to the second part of the equation after the equal sign... please help me to understand! , one of the countless ways to express the value 1. Therefore... giving a reduced form of tanh(x) Hyperbolic function - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
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