Hi guys!
Sorry to dump this one on you without any work done, but I'm really not sure where to start. I've only solved logarithmic equations with like bases so that the one-to-one property is used to eliminate the logarithms.
Here is the equation:
The answer is given as:
Of course, if I'm going to learn anything, I need to see how the correct answer was arrived at.
Thanks so much for the help!
Oops. That was my mistake, I put the wrong sign in the equation.
Here is the correct problem:
Could someone provide a step-by-step on how to reach the solution?
Even with the conversion provided (thanks, Plato!) I'm not sure because I'd normally take the co-efficient and put it back as a power of the log. I'm really lost here.
What's the best way to solve this one? Is there a way without doing that conversion?