Hi people,
I want to show that , can you help me please???
For a (imho) somewhat more intuitive solution consider a right triangle with acute angle , opposite leg and adjacent leg 1: By construction we have . But by Pythagoras's theorem we also have that the length of the hypotenuse must be . By definition of in a right triangle we find that , i.e. the ratio of opposite leg to hypotenuse in that right triangle.