If the function fg (f compose g) exist, then domain of fg = domain of g. Is the result above true? Not necessary, right? Domain of fg will just be a subset of domain of g, am i correct? Thanks!!!
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Originally Posted by acc100jt If the function fg (f compose g) exist, then domain of fg = domain of g. Is the result above true? Not necessary, right? Domain of fg will just be a subset of domain of g, am i correct? Thanks!!! No it is not necessarily true. The domain of the composite will be those elements x in the domain of g for which g(x) is in the domain of f. good luck!
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