If the function fg (f compose g) exist, then domain of fg = domain of g.

Is the result above true? Not necessary, right? (Wondering)

Domain of fg will just be a subset of domain of g, am i correct?

Thanks!!!

Printable View

- Nov 21st 2009, 08:28 PMacc100jtdomain of composite function
If the function fg (f compose g) exist, then domain of fg = domain of g.

Is the result above true? Not necessary, right? (Wondering)

Domain of fg will just be a subset of domain of g, am i correct?

Thanks!!! - Nov 22nd 2009, 08:35 AMapcalculus