To cut to the chase:

In the squeeze theorem, is g(x)≤f(x)≤h(x), noting that it is standard textbook designation for a closed interval,

a) closed, does not apply to lim sinx/x

b) open, applies to lim sinx/x, but then why not state the theorem as g(x)<f(x)<h(x)

c) ambiguous, depends on f(x), does not apply to lim sin/x

Want to end the thread? Please answer a) b) or c). Explanations OK if not too obtuse, wordy, or irrelevant. This is a simple question.

Allegation of passion is not a mathematical argument, it is a political one (insult). See comment above by Topsquark.

I’m still annoyed at being locked out of the challenge problem, of which this thread is an accidental off-shoot.