Back again haha. Thanks for all the great help. I have to prove that, for a positive integer n and any integer a, gcd(a, a+n) divides n; hence gcd(a, a+1)=1. Not even sure where to begin.
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Originally Posted by glowplug19 Back again haha. Thanks for all the great help. I have to prove that, for a positive integer n and any integer a, gcd(a, a+n) divides n; hence gcd(a, a+1)=1. Not even sure where to begin. Hi glowplug19. $\displaystyle \gcd(a,a+n)$ divides both $\displaystyle a$ and $\displaystyle a+n;$ hence it divides $\displaystyle (a+n)-a=n.$
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