Hi,

Need help with this problem;

Let a,b1,b2,....bn E Z, with (a,b1)=(a,b2)=(a,b3)=....=(a,bn)=1

Prove that

(a,b1b2....bn) = 1

Thanks

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- Apr 29th 2009, 11:57 AMhtata123relatively prime problem
Hi,

Need help with this problem;

Let a,b1,b2,....bn E Z, with (a,b1)=(a,b2)=(a,b3)=....=(a,bn)=1

Prove that

(a,b1b2....bn) = 1

Thanks - Apr 30th 2009, 06:13 AMGrandadPrime factors
Hello htata123You need to consider the (unique) prime factorisation of $\displaystyle a$ and all the $\displaystyle b_i$, and then use the fact that $\displaystyle a$ does not have any prime factor in common with any of the $\displaystyle b_i$, and therefore neither with $\displaystyle \prod{b_i}$.

Grandad