stuck on a proof..any help would be great!
show, for any integer k>=0:
en(a^k)= en(a) / gcd( en(a), k)
where en(a) is the order of a modulo n, also (a,n) = 1
I had another proof using group theory. Consider the cyclic subgroups and .
Define by This is well defined for if then
is surjective as Clearly it is also a homomorphism.
Now there are integers such that
Conversely, if then = = = = 1.
Hence the kernel of is and the result follows (note that has elements).