Thread: modular arith.

if we are doing modular arith. why will (a)mod p always have an inverse if p is prime???

Please help

Thanks

Hello,

A number a has an inverse modulo p if a is coprime with p.

so if , where p is prime, then a has an inverse modulo p !
especially if , then it has an inverse.

Originally Posted by Moo

Hello,

A number a has an inverse modulo p if a is coprime with p.

so if , where p is prime, then a has an inverse modulo p !
especially if , then it has an inverse.

Just a minor correction.