if we are doing modular arith. why will (a)mod p always have an inverse if p is prime???

Please help

Thanks(Headbang)

Printable View

- March 8th 2009, 08:30 AMmandy123modular arith.
if we are doing modular arith. why will (a)mod p always have an inverse if p is prime???

Please help

Thanks(Headbang) - March 8th 2009, 11:48 AMMoo
Hello,

A number a has an inverse modulo p if a is coprime with p.

so if , where p is prime, then a has an inverse modulo p !

especially if , then it has an inverse. - March 9th 2009, 04:57 AMJaneBennet