Is there anyone who can help me where to start. I'm having a hard time to figure this problem out. Thanks
Show that if a, b, and m are integers such that m ≥ 2 and a ≡ b( mod m), then gcd(a,m) = gcd(b,m).
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Is there anyone who can help me where to start. I'm having a hard time to figure this problem out. Thanks
Show that if a, b, and m are integers such that m ≥ 2 and a ≡ b( mod m), then gcd(a,m) = gcd(b,m).
for some integer k.
Let. Since
and
, it follows from
that
and is thus a common divisor of
and
.
Letbe any common divisor of
and
. With a similar argument, we have that
. By definition, since
is the greatest common divisor of
and
, we have that
.
This means that any common divisor ofand
is less than
. Can you conclude?
thanks for the help, i now know what to conclude:)