let p and q be distinct odd prime numbers with p-1 divides q-1. If a is with in integers with (a,pq)=1 prove that a^q-1=1mod pq
Last edited by rmpatel5; September 23rd 2008 at 09:07 PM.
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Originally Posted by rmpatel5 let p and q be distinct odd prime numbers with p-1 divides q-1. If a is with in integers with (a,pq)=1 prove that a^q-1=1mod pq let since we have also since we have: which gives us: so we showed that both and divide and thus must also divide
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