a) If a^p = b^p mod p, prove that a = b mod p b) If a a = b mod p, prove that a^p = b^p mod p
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#1: (Hint: Fermat's theorem) #2: You can use the fact that if and then . Then it's just a matter of considering and
Originally Posted by o_O #1: (Hint: Fermat's theorem) #2: You can use the fact that if and then . Then it's just a matter of considering and trying to use fermats theorem but still cant prove it
Originally Posted by bigb a) If a^p = b^p mod p, prove that a = b mod p Do what o_O did. Fermat's little theorem says and . Therefore we can replace by and by since they are congruent. This leaves us with .
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker Do what o_O did. Fermat's little theorem says and . Therefore we can replace by and by since they are congruent. This leaves us with . Can anyone work this out.. really cant seem to solve this
Fermat's theorem:
Originally Posted by bigb a) If a^p = b^p mod p, prove that a = b mod p b) If a a = b mod p, prove that a^p = b^p mod p I made a mistake in typing out the problem for part b if that makes a differnece...it should be a^p = b^p mod p, prove that a^P = b^p mod p^2
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