Quite straightforward, but it's proving somewhat frustrating for me. Show that for all integers r,s with 2(r^2)+1= s, one of r and s must be divisble by 3.
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Originally Posted by Jamot69 Quite straightforward, but it's proving somewhat frustrating for me. Show that for all integers r,s with 2(r^2)+1= s, one of r and s must be divisble by 3. If has form then is divisible by , so is divisible by . If has form the same idea applies. Otherwise has form but then there is nothing to show.
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