Thread: Show that for all integers r,s

Quite straightforward, but it's proving somewhat frustrating for me.

Show that for all integers r,s with 2(r^2)+1= s, one of r and s must be divisble by 3.

Originally Posted by Jamot69

Quite straightforward, but it's proving somewhat frustrating for me.

Show that for all integers r,s with 2(r^2)+1= s, one of r and s must be divisble by 3.

If has form then is divisible by , so is divisible by . If has form the same idea applies. Otherwise has form but then there is nothing to show.