is it true?
what is the proof?
I prefer a hint if it ain't difficult to prove.
tnx![]()
Whoa!!!Originally Posted by srulikbd
That is too complicated I believe the proof use's funtional analysis. It was first proven by Dirichelt (my avatar).
In fact in the book "Introduction to Theory of Numbers" by Hardy and Wright. Which contains elementary,algebraic and analytic number theory; proves all theorems in the book (even the prime number theorem) except this theorem! That is how complicated it is.
Lemma: The product of integers of the formOriginally Posted by srulikbd
is again an integer of the form
.
Proof:: Ifand
then,
. Q.E.D.
Theorem: There are infinitely many primes of form.
Proof: Assume there are finitely many primes of formcall them
. Then form an integer,
Prime factorizeas,
Note thatbecause it is odd. Thus,
for any
.
We cannot have that all the primes factors ofare of the form
for that would imply that
has form
, which is does not because
by the lemma. Thus one of its factors
has form
. Because an odd prime has one of two forms
. But then
thus,
thus,
, because
is found among
thus an impossibility. Q.E.D.