Doing number theory problems and it's given that this is trivial, but I'm not sure how. What's the proof behind it?
Similar situation for (a^2) - 1 divides (a^(p-1) - 1) where a is an integer > 1 as (p-1) is given to be even. Why is this?
Doing number theory problems and it's given that this is trivial, but I'm not sure how. What's the proof behind it?
Similar situation for (a^2) - 1 divides (a^(p-1) - 1) where a is an integer > 1 as (p-1) is given to be even. Why is this?
You''re missing grouping symbols for the second exponent. When k = 0, the revised second expression would be zero, so the statement would be trivially true.
I would recommend you rewrite it similar to the following:
2^p - 1 divides 2^(kp) - 1, where p is prime and k is some positive integer.