Can you prove that any number is expessable in Roman Numerals?

Printable View

- Apr 30th 2006, 02:03 PMThePerfectHackerRoman Numerals
Can you prove that any number is expessable in Roman Numerals?

- Apr 30th 2006, 02:25 PMtopsquarkQuote:

Originally Posted by**ThePerfectHacker**

-Dan - Apr 30th 2006, 02:27 PMThePerfectHackerQuote:

Originally Posted by**topsquark**

Code:`__`

IV

- Apr 30th 2006, 02:37 PMtopsquarkQuote:

Originally Posted by**ThePerfectHacker**

Well then, all you should need to be able to do is express any number from 1 to 1000. Then using one bar and "non-barred" numerals you will be able to get to 1,000,000. Then with two bars, one bar, and non-barred you can get to 10^9, etc. This isn't a formal proof (obviously) but one should easily be able to generate one from this.

-Dan - May 1st 2006, 04:00 PMRebesques
Well... It's the case with Sumerian, Egyptian, Babylonian etc numerals, that you can express any number with their help; The point is, symbolic notation would be too large, to be of any practical use.

But Babyonians rule; They could even denote decimals (in base 60), which makes their ideas on number very modern - or our ideas on number rather old... :rolleyes: - May 2nd 2006, 03:56 AMtopsquarkQuote:

Originally Posted by**Rebesques**

-Dan - May 2nd 2006, 08:24 AMRebesques
Well, the point remains, why they chose base 60...

Besides the ritual importance, it is a number you can easily chose a half, a third, a quarter, a fifth, a sixth, a tenth, a twelfth etc from.

That must have made commerse easier... :cool: