Re: Proof by contradiction

Assume that there is a rational solution x. How can x be written? Substitute this form of x into the equation and convert it into an equation that uses addition and multiplication only. Consider several cases when the variables occurring in the equation are even or odd. Only one of those cases is possible. But then the representation of x chosen in the beginning was not optimal in some sense.

Re: Proof by contradiction

Suppose there is a rational root in the form $\displaystyle x = \frac{p}{q}$ where p, q are relatively prime and $\displaystyle q \neq 0$. Then

$\displaystyle a(\frac{p}{q})^2 + b(\frac{p}{q}) + c = 0$

$\displaystyle \frac{ap^2 + bpq + cq^2}{q^2} = 0 \Rightarrow ap^2 + bpq + cq^2 = 0$

Note that a,b,c are all odd. Can you find a parity contradiction here?

Re: Proof by contradiction

I am new to the forum and am an amateur, so I may have oversimplified.

Move c to the right side of the equation, factor the left side by x, thus x has to divide c, which is odd, therefore x must be odd. Since a and b are odd, x(xa + b) is even, and we have a contradiction.

Re: Proof by contradiction

Quote:

Originally Posted by

**OldDude** I am new to the forum and am an amateur, so I may have oversimplified.

Move c to the right side of the equation, factor the left side by x, thus x has to divide c

What does it mean for a rational number to divide an integer?

Re: Proof by contradiction

a,b,c odd => a = b = c = 1 (mod 2).

thus, mod 2:

ap^{2} + bpq + cq^{2} = 0 becomes:

p^{2} + pq + q^{2} = 0 (mod 2)

and since mod 2, p^{2} = p (a specific instance of fermat's "little theorem" for p = 2, but it's easy to verify directly 0^{2} = 0, and 1^{2} = 1, and (mod 2), 0 and 1 are "all there is"),

p + pq + q = 0 (mod 2)

if p = 0, q = 1 we have:

0 + 0 + 1 = 0 (mod 2) can't happen.

if p = 1, q = 0, we have:

1 + 0 + 0 = 0 (mod 2) nope. never.

if p = q = 1, we have:

1 + 1 + 1 = 0

0 + 1 = 0 sorry, wrong number.

so the only legitimate possibility is p = q = 0 (mod 2):

0 + 0 + 0 = 0 (mod 2). we have a winner!

but wait! if p = q = 0 (mod 2), this means both p and q are EVEN.....so gcd(p,q) can't possibly be 1 (it has to be at LEAST 2).

(arithmetic "mod 2" IS the "arithmetic of parity").