Let p be a prime number with p = 1 mod 4. Prove that

the summation of (a/p), a is from 1 to (p-1)/2, is equal to 0.

Originally Posted by babygill
Let p be a prime number with p = 1 mod 4. Prove that

the summation of (a/p), a is from 1 to (p-1)/2, is equal to 0.
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-Dan