Let p be a prime number with p = 1 mod 4. Prove that the summation of (a/p), a is from 1 to (p-1)/2, is equal to 0.
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Originally Posted by babygill Let p be a prime number with p = 1 mod 4. Prove that the summation of (a/p), a is from 1 to (p-1)/2, is equal to 0. We are not a homework service. Please let us know how far you've gotten with this. -Dan
the problem is I have no idea where to start
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