Can you prove that by induction? (base case n=2)
Hello, I have questions.
Is the following proposition known?
"There exists a prime number between n^{2} and n(n+1) for any integer n>=2."
Do you know whether this is true or false?
Thank you.
I found this proposition fell under the following conjecture.
Oppermann's conjecture - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Thanks.