# Proving on Euler's totient?

• Aug 20th 2012, 07:38 PM
musngiburger
Proving on Euler's totient?
The Euler's totient φ is known to be multiplicative. Let f be de_ned by f(n) = φ (φ (n)). Is the
since $\varphi(n)$ is always even for n>2 $gcd(\varphi(a),\varphi(b)) = 1$ never true !!!!!!