Hi everyone.

If $\displaystyle p$ and $\displaystyle q$ are differents primes and $\displaystyle a^p \equiv b^p \pmod{p}$ show that

$\displaystyle a^p \equiv b^p \pmod{p^2}$

Thanks.

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- May 22nd 2012, 08:21 PMFernandoEuler's theorem
Hi everyone.

If $\displaystyle p$ and $\displaystyle q$ are differents primes and $\displaystyle a^p \equiv b^p \pmod{p}$ show that

$\displaystyle a^p \equiv b^p \pmod{p^2}$

Thanks. - Jun 6th 2012, 02:02 AMSarasijRe: Euler's theorem
I don't understand your question...where is "q" coming in here ?