Hi,
Would the following constitute a proof of "if n is compositie then (n-1!)=0 mod n"
We can use the chinese remainder theorem to find
Suppose that
Then because in each case is less than (n-1) and so it divides (n-1!). We find that for all i. Then the CRT implies that n-1 =0 mod n
Does the above make sense??
Thanks for any help!