I think I've found a proof for the following but would really appreciate if someone could either point out where I've gone wrong (there are a couple of steps which I'm not 100% happy with) or perhaps suggest a more simple approach. Anyway, here is the problem:
Let p be prime. Let p == 2 mod 3 and p-1 = 4q (for some prime q)>
1) a) Prove
My proof:
which contradictions our assumption that
Could anyone tell me if this proof is correct? Thanks!
Ah I see it. Thanks!
For some reason I was reluctant to write 3^2 as 9, as soon as you do that it becomes obvious.
For the case where
A similar argument proves that p divides 8 which implies that p=2. Which contradicts p-1=4q (some prime q).