If I can show that

and

can only be perfect squares simultaneously when

and

is this enough to say that p = q ?

[edit]

Forgot to say that p and q are integers > 0

Thanks

Printable View

- Oct 3rd 2011, 06:29 AMprocyon2p^2 - q^2 and 2q^2 - p^2 as perfect squares simultaneously
If I can show that

and

can only be perfect squares simultaneously when

and

is this enough to say that p = q ?

[edit]

Forgot to say that p and q are integers > 0

Thanks