One of the most 'wonderful' discoveries of the Swiss mathematician Leonhard Euler was the 'product'...
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Now if s tends to 1, then tends to infinity... what's the consequence?...
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Yes it's correct... but what I had in mind is that the 'infinite sum' when is the 'armonic sum' which diverges to . If the 'discovery' of Leonhard Euler is true, then the product diverges to and that means that the product diverges to 0. Bur none of the terms is zero, so that necessarly there are infinite factors , i.e. there are infinite primes...
Kind regards