Originally Posted by
sfspitfire23 e^[(pi)(i)] + 1 = 0
e^[(pi)(i)] = -1
(pi)(i) = ln(-1)
pi = [ln(-1)]/i
pi = C/d where C = a circle's circumference and d = a circle's diameter
Thus:
C/d=[ln(-1)]/i
If:
“C” and “d” must be positive real numbers when finding a circle’s area
ln(-1) = Does not exist
i = √(-1) = Imaginary number
Then:
Can the ratio of a non-existent number to an imaginary number equal the ratio of two real numbers? If not, then can pi still be considered a real transcendental number or is it non-existent and/or imaginary?