Hi all,
I would like to know why rational numbers can encompass numbers that are infinite but periodical ( like 1/3) and cannot comprise numbers that are infinite but non-periodical (like Pi).
An explanation made in simple terms would be welcome.
Ps : I do know that infinite-non-periodical numbers are called irrationals because they cannot be written as a ratio such as a/b, my question is : why can't they ?
Many thanks


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