Hi all,

I would like to know why rational numbers can encompass numbers that are infinite but periodical ( like 1/3) and cannot comprise numbers that are infinite but non-periodical (like Pi).

An explanation made in simple terms would be welcome.

Ps : I do know that infinite-non-periodical numbers are called irrationals because they cannot be written as a ratio such as a/b, my question is : why can't they ?

Many thanks