Hey guys I need help with this question
and the answer given in the solution to the question is that since
I know by substituting in values for n inthat they all appear divisible by 3, is this a definite rule, is there a proof of this without using induction?
The same goes for, how do we know that this is divisble by 2 for all values of n without induction
If we can't use induction to prove those divisbility by 3 and 2, then isn't the question kinda invalid?
Thanks![]()


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