if N is a norm function from Fq^n to Fq . how can I prove that for alpha belongs to Fq^n star , N(alpha) =1 iff there exists an element Beta belongs to Fq^n such that alpha is equal to (Beta)^1-q .

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- March 17th 2011, 06:45 AMMike12surjective function
if N is a norm function from Fq^n to Fq . how can I prove that for alpha belongs to Fq^n star , N(alpha) =1 iff there exists an element Beta belongs to Fq^n such that alpha is equal to (Beta)^1-q .