Why does and imply that is divisible by both 11 and 31? Thanks for any help Is it because:
Last edited by hmmmm; March 10th 2011 at 02:40 PM.
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Originally Posted by hmmmm Why does and imply that is divisible by both 11 and 31? Thanks for any help Is it because: I can't actually answer your question, however and -Dan
sorry I keep doing this it should be 341 not 314 really sorry I have edited the thread
Originally Posted by hmmmm sorry I keep doing this it should be 341 not 314 really sorry I have edited the thread (chuckles) I should have caught that myself, I kept trying to put in 341 in my calculator... -Dan
Originally Posted by hmmmm Why does and imply that is divisible by both 11 and 31? Thanks for any help Is it because: The first case is simple: That's directly by the (slightly more general case of) Fermat's little theorem. I'm still working on the next part, but I note that . since you are given that and this has the feel of some kind of division algorithm in the works. -Dan
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