Sorry I'm very new to this stuff.
Could someone explain to me how to do the following question please?:
"Let p = 11, and a = 3. Explain why you can apply the Little Fermat's Theorem: a^(p-1) ≡ 1 (mod p). Verify this theorem directly by using the given numbers p and a."
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks in advance!
Sorry for the dumb question but, to answer this particular question, do I need to say all that if this were a test for example or is it enough to say that they're both prime and therefore relatively prime and then just plug in the values and demonstrate (not prove) that it works?
What is important is that p is prime and a is coprime with it. Of course, if a is also prime then it's easier
to check coprimality, but the question has the very same output for a = 6, 8 or 0,
say and none of these is prime and it's also very easy to show coprimality)
Pd. I'm gonna do copyright of that word, coprimality, which I believe exists only in
my imagination but not in the english language...