Edit: nevermind, didn't think it through.

Edit 2: Here are some thoughts.

p being congruent to 5 mod 6 is the same as saying p is an odd prime congruent to 2 mod 3.

Here is an experiment: Note that

produces all equivalence classes mod 11 besides zero.

If this is true for all odd primes congruent to 2 mod 3 and we can prove it, then the only other piece we'd need is that there exist an infinitude of such primes.