Hello all,

My book gave a theorem that stated that if a and a' both divide x and y, and that every g that divides x and y also divides a and a', then a and a' are associates.

Can anyone prove this?

Printable View

- Aug 26th 2010, 08:20 AMSamsonAssociates
Hello all,

My book gave a theorem that stated that if a and a' both divide x and y, and that every g that divides x and y also divides a and a', then a and a' are associates.

Can anyone prove this? - Aug 26th 2010, 08:26 AMchiph588@
- Aug 26th 2010, 08:28 AMSamson
Does this mean that a = a'?

- Aug 26th 2010, 08:32 AMchiph588@
- Aug 26th 2010, 09:26 AMSamson
Thank you!