Prove that there exists no polynomicalwith integral coefficients such that
are satisfied for
distinct integers
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Prove that there exists no polynomicalwith integral coefficients such that
are satisfied for
distinct integers
This problem has captivated me. At first glance, I thought it must be either false or simple. So far, neither seems to be correct. So far all I have managed to prove is the polynomialmust be higher than quadratic.
For starters, these "chains" are not difficult to find. Here is a simple example:.
. Therefore I figured that the reason no integer "chain" can exist must be numerical, not analytical.
The three pointsare not collinear (I'll let the reader satisfy him/herself with an explanation for this), therefore
cannot be linear. It must have curvature, and therefore must be at least quadratic.
Letand solve using the three sample points in the usual manner.
Using a computer (actually Wolfram Alpha -- shameless plug), one can easily find. The following proves that u is never an integer:
According to Wolfram Alpha,
Substitute, so
So. Call
for "difference" and "product" respectively.
. Rewriting,
. Since the denominator
, there is no possible way it can divide the numerator
. (Can someone verify this last point rigorously please?)
Since assuming all variables are integers ends in contradiction, one of them must be non-integral. The end result is thatmust be at least cubic.
I seriously doubt this is the correct approach for this problem, but it is as much as I can contribute, so it may inspire someone else. I believe abstract algebra may hold the key.
Hi media_man!
Thank you for your post. If it helps, this problem has been picked up from the "Functions" chapter of a 1st year college text book. So I'm reasoning that the solution would be analytic and not numerical. And it would most probably involve some concepts of functions and inverses along with number theory. This book particularly is not very challenging so I think there is a simple concept that I am missing out on. When I first saw it I thought it would be simple too. But I've been grappling with this for over two days to no avail! :(
"Differential Calculus" by Shantinarayan and PK Mittal (S. Chand Publishers). It's an Indian book.
Spoiler:
Thank you so much. This is a beautiful solution!
Use the fact thatis divisible by
for any positive integer
and integers
and also use the fact that
is a polynomial with integral coefficients to prove that
is an integer
Excellent proof, Bourbaki. As a continuation, this can also be extended to "chains" of not just three elements, but any arbitrary number. As another continuation, this proves that in any chain (removing the integer requirement), the product of all the elements is always plus or minus 1. Ex: (.347)(-1.879)(1.532)=-1