This question is bugging me, and it has been for some time now. I know how to use mathematical induction, but I just dont see how I can "logically" fit it into this proof! I'm sure its oversight on my behalf.
I know that every number can be written in the formor
and that
corresponds to all the even numbers and that
corresponds to all the odd numbers. But, from my understanding mathematical induction works by steps, the whole
stuff, but how can I use induction on this problem? Because niether
or
encompasses the whole set of positive numbers implied by induction, correct? Becuase in either set, they are missing "half" the numbers?
How do you get around this and use induction (I'm sure, like I said, the answer is right under my nose, and is very obvious, but I'm just not seeing it), or any proof for that matter, to prove that evey natural number is either of the formor
. Thanks in advance.


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