, where p and q are distinct primes, it follows . Since this isn't true, then no??
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Originally Posted by dwsmith , where p and q are distinct primes, it follows This is true. In general and implies . See this MathWorld page, property #11. Originally Posted by dwsmith I don't see how you made this step.
Originally Posted by dwsmith , where p and q are distinct primes, it follows This is correct and you have the right idea on how to prove it. See here for full a proof.