Hello!
I have a question! Is it true that the central binomial coefficientis divisible by a
prime number if
, where
means fractional part?
Thanks!
I think that OP question can also be proved by using: Bertrand's postulate - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Here is what I've tried., with
(becuase
is the fractional part). Then
and
(since
). So,
. (Remember this).
In general,, so
. Therefore,
, since when
we have a strict inequality.
Now, due to Legendre, the exponent of the largest power ofthat divides
is
, and this expresstion is positive. This implies that
divides
.
I hope this helps...
Yes , so the if-then statement is correct , by the way i am not sure if this can help in this situation :
The max. power of a given primedenoted by
such that
can be obtained by this formula ( without a formal proof , could be wrong ) :
where
is the sum of the digits of
in the representation of base
.
For example ,we have
so
so
which is true because
.
My proof:
Leta prime number, so the highest power of
which divides
is
, so the highest power of
which divides the central binomial coefficient is
. And that is completely trivial
will be 1 for all real number if
, and we know that there are only two values possible: 0 or 1, so the summation is nonnegative. Thus, it is anough if
happens at least once in the summation, and the initial condition shows that, because
.