Let p(x) be an irreducible function and if f(x) is irreducible then f(p(x)) is also irreducible How do you prove this? Thanks heaps!!
Last edited by usagi_killer; Jul 7th 2010 at 02:49 AM.
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Hi , is that really true ? Is it a ' true-or-false' statement question ?
View Tag Cloud