I am stuck on this one too........let m,n be integers such that gcd(m,n)=1. prove that if a equivalent to b mod m and a equivalent to b mod n, then a equivalent to b mod (mn)

thanks

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- April 15th 2010, 08:59 PM #1

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- April 15th 2010, 09:19 PM #2

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- April 16th 2010, 09:27 AM #6