ok..i understand where you're coming from now. so since p / b^2 it also divides b..
indeed. I hope you understood the steps leading upto .
The definition of prime-numbers say: if or
Apply that idea to then follows that .
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yes..i do..understand how we got where we did..
for b, your saying counter-example, as in prove it is tru by saying that if p does not divide a^2 + b^2 then it does not divide a^2 + b^2 nor c^2 + d^2.
No. It means you're giving an example that shows the given statement is false.
A statement like: For all we have is clearly false. Then is an counterexample against that statement.
ok.. i think i see where you're coming from
Are you sure that a is false..if p divides thoroughly isnt the statement tru?
so that would make a and b false then..correct..
(a) and (b) is false. For (a) I gave you a counterexample in the first post. For (b) try to come up with a counter-example yourself.
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