Prove that if m and n are positive integers and if ab ≡ 1 (mod m) and a^n ≡ 1 (mod m), then b^n ≡ 1 (mod m). Any help would be greatly appreciated! I am lost with this one but I probably am just missing a very simple step. Thanks!
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Given is mod m. This implies that mod m. Thus if mod n what does this say about mod m?
Originally Posted by FatherMike Prove that if m and n are positive integers and if ab ≡ 1 (mod m) and a^n ≡ 1 (mod m), then b^n ≡ 1 (mod m). Any help would be greatly appreciated! I am lost with this one but I probably am just missing a very simple step. Thanks! We have that
View Tag Cloud