I am having trouble deciding if this is true and if not true what numbers would work to show that it is not true. Prove or give counterexample of: IF a,b,m,n belong to N and m/n. If a congruent b (mod n) then a congruent b (mod m).
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Originally Posted by chadlyter I am having trouble deciding if this is true and if not true what numbers would work to show that it is not true. Prove or give counterexample of: IF a,b,m,n belong to N and m/n. If a congruent b (mod n) then a congruent b (mod m). a = b (mod n) means, n|(a-b) But m|n. By transitivity of division, m|(a-b) Thus, a=b (mod m)
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