Show that if (a,m) = 1 and m has a prime factor p such that (p-1) | Q, then I am not sure how to do this, so any help would be great!
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since p divides m, if we show that ,then the statement is proved. since p-1 divides Q, there exist integer k such that Q=(p-1)k. by the fermat theorem: ; and thus p divides . QED
Last edited by Shanks; Dec 14th 2009 at 05:46 PM.
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