Hello, everyone! For 10 months I was finding a relation between the Riemann Hypothesis and lucky numbers, and finally I have found (I hope without mistakes of my too long proof) an equivalence of RH using the lucky numbers. It says that:
Let be L(n) the nth-lucky number, then RH is true if and only if:
And now I don't know how to demonstrate this relation without using the RH. Can you say something about?
If you want to talk about my proof, I prefer that you contact me separately with my mail address. Thank you.